Post by Jasmine on Oct 7, 2007 10:44:44 GMT -5
"Husband of One Wife"
1 Timothy 3:2, 12
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach. . . . Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well."
Alright. On another thread it was made known that a Chicago Bishop was "quietly" in divorce, but we have far since seen bishops divorcing and remarrying, just switching women, like underwear.
Now, I Timothy 3:2-12 is very CLEAR to me. Just so I am not missing anything, I decided to post this thread and ask a very simple question.
Could the phrase " Husband of one wife" take on a different meaning than the traditional view of being married to the same woman "forever" or does the phrase mean....polygamy is prohibited.
Your views thoughts and views
1 Timothy 3:2, 12
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach. . . . Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well."
Alright. On another thread it was made known that a Chicago Bishop was "quietly" in divorce, but we have far since seen bishops divorcing and remarrying, just switching women, like underwear.
Now, I Timothy 3:2-12 is very CLEAR to me. Just so I am not missing anything, I decided to post this thread and ask a very simple question.
Could the phrase " Husband of one wife" take on a different meaning than the traditional view of being married to the same woman "forever" or does the phrase mean....polygamy is prohibited.
Your views thoughts and views
for instance King David, He was married to Sauls Daughter, Abigail, and then Basheeba after He plot Uriah's death.........plus he had concubines......I know they lived in a different time but my goodnes that is still crazy to me...